- Jan 11, 2016
Good morning, recently my community is requesting me to pay a debt that belongs to a previous fee before I bought, that is a quota of the previous owner. I do not understand why I am obliged if at the date of the debt I was not the owner, wouldn’t it be more logical that is directed against the former owner who sold me the house?
Administrator: Juan L.
Although it seems no logical, certainly your home is affected by the debt, and therefore it is you that will be required to pay this amount as provided for article 9 e) of the law of Horizontal property, with the limit of the amount that is attributable to amount of the annuity in which the acquisition takes place and the previous three years , so provided that the debt is within these limits, you have no options except to pay.